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GEOGRAPHY

PAPER 1 (THEORY)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer Sections A and B from Part I which are compulsory. Answer any four questions from Part II. Sketch maps and diagrams should be drawn wherever they serve to illustrate your answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------PART I (30 Marks)

Answer all questions.

Section A

Question 1 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) With respect to area, explain how Australia is much larger than India. Name one important latitude and one important longitude passing through India. Give one reason why each is important. What are ,,western disturbances? When are they active in India? What is meant by the natural growth rate of population? Mention three factors responsible for reducing the quality of water. What is rain water harvesting? Name two states in India where rain water harvesting is practised. Give a reason for the absence of railway lines: (a) (viii) between Jodhpur and Jaisalmer. (b) in Sunderbans, West Bengal. Mention two problems associated with the use of renewable energy resources. [10 2]

1 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(ix) (x)

Give two reasons to explain why there is large scale cultivation of cotton around Mumbai. On the map of India given below: (a) (b) Identify the two ports, A and B. Give a reason to explain why port B was built.

Question 2 On the outline map of India provided: (a) (b) (c) (d) Mark and name the Siwalik range. Mark and name the area where jute is cultivated on a large scale. Mark and name the river which is also known as the Dakshin Ganga. Mark and name any two terminal towns of the Golden Quadrilateral. 2

[10]

ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j)

Shade and name the State having the lowest density of population. Print H.P. over an area of high pressure in winter. Mark with a dot and name the largest city in the northern plains. Mark and name the coast where there are a large number of lagoons. Shade one area where coal is mined. Mark with a dot and name a tourist centre in Jammu & Kashmir.

PART II (40 Marks) Answer any four questions. Question 3 (a) (b) (c) (d) Mention two differences between the Peninsular Plateau and the Himalayan Mountains. Explain why the Khadar soils are better than the Bhangar soils. Explain why rainfall decreases eastwards in the peninsular region of India. Name two states in India which are heavily forested. Explain why this is so. [2] [3] [2] [3]

Question 4 (a) (i) (ii) (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (c) (i) (ii) Why is 1921 considered to be a special year in the demographic history of India? What is migratory growth of population? What is meant by literacy rate? Distinguish between literacy rate and crude literacy rate. How is literacy rate related to the growth rate of population? What is a metropolis? Discuss the main problems of urbanization. [5] [3] [2]

3 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 5 (a) (i) (ii) (b) (i) (ii) (iii) What is the difference between barren land and fallow land? Explain how area sown more than once is an indication of agricultural advancement. What are the problems of canal irrigation? Why is canal irrigation almost absent from peninsular India? Name one State in India where each of the following is used: (1) Tank irrigation (2) Canal irrigation (c) Mention two reasons why environmental management is needed. [2] [4] [4]

Question 6 (a) State the differences between rice and wheat with respect to the following: (i) (ii) (b) (c) (d) The main cropping season. The amount of rainfall required. [2] [3] [3] [2]

Mention two problems faced by the fishing industry in India. What are some of the problems associated with the use of thermal power? Mention three problems associated with the Green Revolution.

Question 7 (a) (b) (c) (d) What are the disadvantages of rail transport in India? Why is air transport popular in a country like India? Explain the absence of transportation lines in north eastern India. (i) (ii) Define communication. Differentiate between transport and communication. [2] [2] [3] [3]

4 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 8 (a) (b) (c) (d) What is a foot-loose industry? Give one example of such an industry. Discuss the factors responsible for the location of the cotton textile industry around Ahmedabad. Name two heavy engineering industries dependent on iron and steel. Enumerate the factors responsible for the location of any one of them. Name two major industrial regions in India ­ one along the east coast and the other along the west coast. [2] [3] [3] [2]

Question 9 (a) (b) (c) (d) Mention two main industries located at Haldia. Name two items of export from Haldia. Mention two characteristics of a planning region. Draw a sketch map of Bangalore to show its location in the peninsula. State the factors responsible for making it the Electronic Capital of India. Write an account of the Silk industry in Chhattisgarh. Mention the varieties of silk produced and the areas where it is produced. [2] [2] [3] [3]

5 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

NAME ............................................................ INDEX NO. ...................................... (This map must be fastened with all other answers) MAP FOR Q. No.2 (MAP OF INDIA)

6 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

SOCIOLOGY

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer Question 1 from Part I and five questions from Part II. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------PART I (20 Marks) Answer all questions.

Question 1 Answer briefly each of the following questions: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x) Define the word descent. Under what category can the terms avoidance, joking-relationship, amitate and teknonymy, be classified. What is polygamy? What is meant by patripotestal and avancupotestal? Define superstition. What is social change? Differentiate between capital goods and consumer goods. How can tribes be classified on the basis of race? Define the concept of collective responsibility in primitive law. Distinguish between assimilation and isolation. [10 2]

7 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PART II (50 Marks) Answer any five questions. Question 2 (a) (b) (c) Discuss the nature of marriage. Discuss any six major functions of marriage. Examine the views of Morgan on Clan. [3] [3] [4]

Question 3 (a) (b) Differentiate between matriarchal and patriarchal societies, giving suitable examples. Discuss briefly the basic principles of Confucianism. [5] [5]

Question 4 (a) (b) Examine class as an effect of industrialization. Discuss any two legislations that have helped improve the status of women in modern India. [5] [5]

Question 5 (a) (b) Discuss any one social movement in India, explaining how it has helped in bringing about social change. Write a brief history of a caste movement and discuss its consequences. [5] [5]

Question 6 (a) (b) What is mass media? Discuss its types. Distinguish between primitive law and modern law. [5] [5]

Question 7 (a) (b) Morality can do without religion, but religion is incomplete without morality. Discuss the given statement. Define briefly the functions and dysfunctions of religion. 8 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013 [5] [5]

Question 8 (a) (b) Contact with the wider society has led to tribal transformation. Examine the given statement. Discuss the policies of the government (post independence) for the upliftment of Indian tribes. [5] [5]

9 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

ECONOMICS

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer Question 1 (compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

PART I (30 Marks)

Answer all questions. Question 1 Answer briefly each of the following questions: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) State the Law of Demand. Mention two assumptions of the Law. What is meant by substitution effect? Define income elasticity of demand. With the help of a diagram, explain one exception to the Law of Supply. What is marginal physical product? How can marginal physical product be obtained from total physical product? With the help of a diagram, show how the equilibrium price and quantity change, when supply increases and demand remains unchanged. Define monopsony. Explain one feature of monopsony. [15 2]

(viii) Differentiate between explicit cost and implicit cost. (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) What is meant by marginal efficiency of capital? Explain how bank rate can be used to control credit in an economy. How can private income be obtained from domestic income? Define fiscal policy. Mention the tools of fiscal policy.

(xiii) What is meant by revenue deficit? (xiv) Differentiate between stock and supply. (xv) Explain the meaning of full employment in macro economics. 10 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PART II (70 Marks)

Answer any five questions. Question 2 (a) (b) Discuss any two exceptions to the Law of Demand. The quantity demanded of a commodity at a price of 10 per unit is 40 units. Its price elasticity of demand is (-2). The price falls by 2 per unit. Calculate the quantity demanded of the commodity at the new price. Explain the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility. [4] [4]

(c)

[6]

Question 3 (a) (b) (c) Draw a market supply curve from two individual hypothetical supply schedules. Discuss two factors other than price that affect the supply of a commodity. Explain price control and rationing with the help of demand and supply curves. [4] [4] [6]

Question 4 (a) (b) Explain with the help of a diagram, the relation between marginal physical product and average physical product. Differentiate between: Internal and external economies of scale. (i) (ii) Internal and external diseconomies of scale. Discuss two causes each of increasing returns to scale and decreasing returns to scale. [4] [4]

(c)

[6]

Question 5 (a) (b) (c) Explain the shape of the average fixed cost curve. Why is the average revenue = marginal revenue = price, under perfect competition? Discuss producers equilibrium by using the total revenue and total cost curves. [4] [4] [6]

Question 6 (a) (b) (c) Define aggregate demand. Mention its components. Explain the meaning of investment multiplier. Distinguish between deficient demand and excess demand in macro economics. [4] [4] [6]

11 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 7 (a) (b) (c) Define money. Explain its function as a medium of exchange. Explain the role of Central Bank as the governments agent and as an advisor to the government. Briefly explain the types of deposits of commercial banks. [4] [4] [6]

Question 8 (a) (b) (c) Discuss two causes of demand pull inflation. How can taxation be used to control inflation? Why is it important for a country to have a budget? Give four reasons for the same. [4] [4] [6]

Question 9 (a) (b) (c) Discuss two precautions that need to be observed while calculating national income by income method. Explain the components of compensation of employees. From the following data, calculate national income, using the expenditure method: in crores (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) Government final consumption expenditure Private final consumption expenditure Net factor income earned from abroad. Gross capital formation Change in stocks Net indirect tax Consumption of fixed capital 730 1580 20 300 40 100 50 10 [4] [4] [6]

(viii) Net exports

12 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

COMMERCE

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer Question 1 from Part I and seven questions from Part II. The intended marks for questions are given in brackets [ ]. -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------PART I (30 Marks) Answer all questions. Question 1 Answer briefly each of the questions (i) to (xv). (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) What is a government company? An appropriate marketing mix is necessary to enable an enterprise to meet its goals. Justify. Distinguish between fixed capital and working capital. State any two objectives of UTI. Explain the term retained earnings. Why is communication called a two way traffic? Differentiate between Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association. [15 2]

(viii) What is a Certificate of Incorporation? (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) Define the term business ethics. Distinguish between advertising and publicity. What is grapevine? Explain any two methods of sales promotion.

(xiii) Outline the steps involved in planning. (xiv) State two differences between Marketing and Sales. (xv) What is the impact of the political environment on a business?

13 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PART II (70 Marks) Answer any seven questions.

Question 2 A joint stock company has great potential for both good and evil. Explain. [10]

Question 3 (a) (b) Management is both a Science and an Art. Explain. Discuss the need for the principles of management. [4] [6]

Question 4 (a) (b) Using examples, distinguish between the economic and social environment of a business. Discuss the factors on which the working capital requirements of an enterprise depend. [4] [6]

Question 5 (a) (b) What are the advantages of being a debenture holder of a company? Explain the factors that influence the choice of an advertising media. [4] [6]

Question 6 (a) (b) What is the contribution of the neo-classical thinking to Management? List the contents of a Prospectus. [4] [6]

Question 7 (a) (b) What are bonus shares? Why are they issued? What is branding? Discuss its advantages. [4] [6]

14 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 8 (a) (b) Compare Taylors and Fayols principles of management. Explain measures to overcome the barriers to effective communication. [4] [6]

Question 9 (a) (b) Differentiate between written and verbal communication. Explain the organisational structure of an advertising agency. [4] [6]

Question 10 Write short notes on: (a) (b) (c) RTGS Balanced mutual funds Factoring as a source of finance. [3] [3] [4]

15 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

ACCOUNTS

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer Question 1 (compulsory) and Question 2 (compulsory) from Part I and any other five questions from Part II. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. Transactions should be recorded in the answer book. All calculations should be shown clearly. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------PART I (30 Marks) Answer all questions. Question 1 Answer briefly each of the following questions: (i) What is the accounting treatment of forfeiture of shares which were originally issued at a premium but subsequently forfeited for non payment of calls when: (a) (b) (ii) The allotment money including premium has been paid by the shareholder The allotment money including premium has not been paid by the shareholder. [10 2]

How will you deal with current years ,,Proposed Dividend and previous years ,,Unclaimed Dividend at the time of preparation of final accounts of a joint stock company? How will you deal with ,,Purchased Goodwill at the time of preparation of cash flow statement from two consecutive years balance sheet without any adjustments? Give two differences between debtors turnover ratio and creditors turnover ratio. How would you adjust the capital accounts of the partners, when the share of profit of a partner is guaranteed by: (a) (b) the firm another partner. 16 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(iii)

(iv) (v)

(vi) (vii)

Define an intangible asset as per AS-26, issued by The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. A firm maintains three ledgers: (a) (b) (c) General Ledger Debtors Ledger Creditors Ledger

At the end of the year, a trial balance is extracted from the three ledgers taken together. Explain how you will extract a trial balance if the sectional balancing system is incorporated. (viii) What is the meaning of underwriting of shares in the context of a joint venture business? (ix) When a company purchases the business of another company, what are the two possibilities that may arise in the books of the purchasing company, if the value of net assets is not equal to the purchase price? How would you value the goodwill of a partnership firm on the basis of: (a) (b) capitalization of average profit method? capitalization of super profit method?

(x)

[10] Question 2 Burton and Sons, a partnership firm is about to admit a partner and so decides to value goodwill in the books. The partners are considering three different methods of valuation as follows: (a) On the basis of two years purchase of the average profits of the last five consecutive years. These were: 2006 ­ 56,000; 2007 ­ 48,000; 2008 ­ 46,000; 2009 ­ 58,000 and 2010 ­ 66,000. On the basis of three years purchase of total super profits of the last five years. For this purpose, the normal profit is to be taken as 40,000 per annum. On the basis of capitalizing the average super profit. For this purpose, the following information is provided: (i) (ii) Adjusted forecast maintainable profits 60,000. Normal rate of return 20%.

(b)

(c)

(iii) Capital employed 2,00,000 (iv) Capitalization rate 25%. You are required to calculate the value of goodwill on the basis of each of the three methods (a) to (c) above. 17 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PART II (70 Marks) Answer any five questions. Question 3 The following information is available from the books of Robinson and Company Limited: Debit balance as on 1.7.97, 87,200 in Debtors account and Credit balance as on 1.7.97, 600 in Debtors account. Transactions during the six months ended 31.12.97 Total sales were 94,000 including cash sales of 4,000. Debtors whose balance was in credit were paid off 600. Payments received by cheque from debtors 60,000. Payments received by cash from debtors 48,000. Payment received by bills receivable 26,000. Bills receivable received from debtors were dishonoured for 6,000 and noting charges of 60 were paid. Bills amounting to 10,000 were discounted with the bank for 9,900. Cheques received from customers were dishonoured for 800. Out of bills receivable received and included in 26,000 above, bills of 5,000 were endorsed to suppliers. Bad debts written off during the period were 1,000. Discount allowed for prompt payment were 700 and bad debts written off in 1995 and now recovered from debtors amounted to 900. Interest debited for delay in payments was 1,250. On 31.12.97, provision for doubtful debts was created for 2,100 and provision for discount on debtors for 500. Hugo and Company Limited appeared in Debtors Ledger and also in Creditors Ledger. The balance in Creditors Ledger was 900 and the same was transferred to Debtors Ledger. Goods of 2,760 were rejected by customers. From the given information, prepare a Total Debtors Account in the General Ledger. 18 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013 [14]

Question 4 Andrew and Bill entered into a joint venture for underwriting the subscription at par of the entire share capital of Jacob and Company Limited consisting of 1,00,000 equity shares of 10 each and to pay all expenses up to allotment. The profits were to be shared by them in the ratio of 3:2 respectively. The consideration in return for this agreement was the allotment of 12,000 other shares of 10 each to be issued to them as fully paid. Andrew provided the funds amounting to 32,500 for various expenses and Bill contributed 27,500 on account of office expenses. The prospectus was issued and application fell short of the issue by 15,000 shares. Andrew took these over on joint account and paid for the same in full. The ventures received 12,000 fully paid shares as underwriting commission. They sold their entire share holding at 12.50 less 50 paise brokerage per share. The net proceeds were received by Andrew for 15,000 shares and Bill for 12,000 shares. You are required to show in the books of Andrew and Bill, the joint venture accounts as well as their personal accounts in their respective books.

[14]

Question 5 Bird and Company Limited issued 10,000 shares of 10 each payable as follows: Application ­ 4 per share on 1.1.09 Allotment ­ 3 per share payable on 1.4.09 First call ­ 2 per share payable on 1.7.09 and Second and final call ­ 1 per share payable on 1.10.09

[14]

All the shares were subscribed for and the money received subject to certain expectations: (a) (b) Mr. Harry holding 500 shares paid the entire amount of his holding at the time of allotment. Mr. Joe holding 200 shares failed to pay the allotment and first call money on the due dates but paid the entire amount due at the time of paying the second and final call.

Directors have decided to charge and allow interest, as the case may be, on calls in arrear and calls in advance respectively, as per the provisions of Table-A of the Companies Act, 1956. The defaulting shareholders duly paid their interest on calls in arrear to the company while some shareholders were also paid interest on calls in advance by the company before the finalization of accounts on 31.12.09.

19 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

You are required to pass the consolidated adjustment and other relevant entries relating to interest on calls in arrear and interest on calls in advance only in all the appropriate books of account of Bird and Company Limited at the time of closing of annual accounts. Question 6 The following is the Balance Sheet of Alice, Barry and Charles as on 1st January, 2010: Liabilities Alices capital Barrys capital Charles capital General reserve Creditors Bills payable Amount Assets Amount 10,000 50,000 40,000 10,000 5,000 5,000 10,000 1,30,000 [14]

40,000 Goodwill 20,000 Building 20,000 Machinery 20,000 Furniture 15,000 Stock 15,000 Debtors _______ Bank 1,30,000

The partners share profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1, but on the above date, they decided to change that to 2:1:1. The following adjustments are required; (a) (b) (c) (d) The value of the goodwill is 15,000. The value of machinery and furniture is to be increased by 15,000 and 5,000, respectively. The value of stock and debtors is to be decreased by 3,000 and 2,000, respectively. The capitals of the partners are to be adjusted according to the new profit and loss sharing ratio and for that, necessary capital is to be brought in or excess capital is to be withdrawn. No reserve will be shown in the new Balance Sheet.

(e)

Prepare revaluation account, partners' capital accounts and re-draft the balance sheet. [14] 20 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 7 The following are the ledger balances extracted from the books of Coopers and Company Limited: Amount Authorized share capital ­ 1,00,000 equity shares of 10 each. Issued and subscribed share capital ­ 1,00,000 equity shares of 10 each Calls in arrear Profit and loss account(Cr) 10% Debentures Debenture interest accrued but not due Fixed deposits accepted Provision for taxation General reserve Proposed dividend Creditors Plant and Machinery Stock Debtors Land Preliminary expenses Advances to directors Furniture Cash Bank Building 13,300 42,700 50,000 30,000 2,47,000 3,50,000 10,00,000 10,00,000 1,000 1,00,000 1,42,500 7,500 1,21,000 68,000 2,10,000 60,000 2,00,000 5,25,000 2,50,000 2,00,000 2,00,000

Prepare the Balance Sheet of the company as per Schedule VI, Part I of the Companies Act, 1956. 21 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 8 Balance Sheet as on 31st March 2010 Liabilities Creditors Bills payable Bank overdraft Outstanding expenses James brothers loan Henrys loan Investment fluctuation fund Employees provident fund General reserve James capital Henrys capital Amount 20,000 Goodwill 20,000 Building 8,000 Plant 2,000 Investments 20,000 Stock 10,000 Debtors 2,800 Less provision for bad Debts 1,200 Bills receivable 2,000 Cash and bank 20,000 20,000 1,26,000 _______ 1,26,000 2,000 10,000 17,000 17,000 15,000 Assets Amount 10,000 25,000 25,000 15,300 8,700

[14]

The firm was dissolved on the above balance sheet date and the following arrangements were decided upon: (a) (b) (c) (d) James agreed to pay off his brothers loan. Debtors realized 12,000. Henry took over all the investment at 12,000. Other assets realized are as follows: (i) (ii) (iii) (e) (f) (g) Plant 20,000. Building 50,000. Goodwill 6,000.

Creditors and bills payable were settled at 5% discount. Henry accepted stock at 8,000 and James took over bills receivable at 20% discount. Realization expenses amounted to 2,000.

You are required to prepare the necessary ledger accounts in order to close the books of the firm. 22 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 9 The Balance sheets of Cowper and Company as on 31st December, 2009, and 31st December 2010, are given below: Liabilities 31.12.09 Amount 10,00,000 31.12.10 Amount Assets 31.12.09 Amount 15,00,000 31.12.10 Amount 20,00,000

[14]

Equity share capital of 100 each General Reserve Profit and Loss account Current liabilities Provision for taxation

20,00,000 Plant

10,00,000 3,00,000 7,00,000 3,00,000 ________ 33,00,000

11,00,000 Stock 4,00,000 Debtors 2,00,000 Cash 4,00,000 Miscellaneous ________ expenditure 41,00,000

6,00,000 10,00,000 1,00,000 1,00,000 ________ 33,00,000

6,00,000 9,00,000 4,00,000 2,00,000 ________ 41,00,000

Additional information: (a) (b) (c) (d) During the current year, the company paid 2,00,000 as equity dividend. During the current year, one plant whose book value was 1,00,000 was sold at a loss of 25,000 and the company purchased another plant for 8,00,000. A sum of 3,50,000 has been provided for taxation for the year. Miscellaneous expenditure included 1,10,000 as share issue expenses. Statement as per AS-3 for the year ended

Prepare a Cash Flow 31st December, 2010. Question 10 (a)

[14]

The following data is available from Allen and Company Limited: Debtors turnover ratio ­ 4 times. Cost of goods sold ­ 6,40,000 Gross profit ratio ­ 20%. Closing debtors were 20,000 more than at the beginning. Cash sales being 33

1 of credit sales. 3

From the above, calculate the amount of opening debtors and closing debtors. 23 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(b)

The following figures have been extracted from Regal and Company Limited: Stock at the beginning of the year ­ 60,000 Stock at the end of the year ­ 1,00,000 Stock turnover ratio ­ 8 units. Selling price 25% above cost. Compute the amount of gross profit and sales.

(c)

The following information is provided to you pertaining to Parker and Company Limited: The above company has a current ratio 3:1 Its current liabilities are 25,000. Calculate its current assets and working capital.

(d)

The following information is available from Scott and Company Limited: Opening stock Closing stock Carriage inwards Purchases Current assets Current liabilities Fixed assets Indirect expenses Sales 30,000 40,000 10,000 1,00,000 50,000 20,000 80,000 15,000 2,00,000

Calculate the Stock turnover ratio and Working Capital turnover ratio. (e) The following information is available from Walter and Company Limited: Stock turnover ratio ­ 5 times Stock at the end of the year is 15,000 more than the stock in the beginning of the year. Sales ­ 2,00,000 Gross profit ratio ­ 25% Current liabilities ­ 50,000 Quick ratio ­ 0.75 Calculate the current assets of the company.

24 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

MATHEMATICS

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Section A - Answer Question 1 (compulsory) and five other questions. Section B and Section C - Answer two questions from either Section B or Section C. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. Mathematical tables and graph papers are provided. Slide rule may be used. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------SECTION A Question 1 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) If A

3 1 , find x and y so that A2 + xI2 = yA. 7 5

[10 3]

Evaluate: tan[2Tan-1(1/5) -

/ 4]

Find the value(s) of k so that the line 3x ­ 4y + k = 0 is tangent to the hyperbola x2 ­ 4y2 = 5. Evaluate:

x 1 Lim x 1 log x x 1

(v)

[

Evaluate:

xe x dx ( x 1) 2

2

(vi)

Evaluate

0

2cos x sin 2x dx 2(1 sin x)

25 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(vii)

Deepak rolls two dice and gets a sum more than 9. What is the probability that the number on the first die is even?

(viii) You are given the following two lines of regression. Find the regression of Y on X and X on Y and justify your answer: 3x + 4y = 8; 4x + 2y = 10 (ix) (x) If w is the cube root of unity, then find the value of (1-3w+w2) (1+w-3w2) Solve: (y + xy)dx + y (1-y2)dy = 0

Question 2 (a) Using properties of determinants, prove that: [5]

b2 c2 ba ca

(b)

ab c2 a 2 cb

ac bc 2 a b2

4a 2 b 2c2

Using matrix method, solve the following system of linear equations: x ­ 2y ­ 2z ­ 5 = 0; ­x + 3y + 4 = 0 and ­2x + z ­ 4 = 0

[5]

Question 3 (a) Verify Rolles theorem for f(x) = ex(sinx ­ cosx) on the interval where derivative vanishes. (b) Find the equation of the parabola whose vertex is at the point (4, 1) and focus is (6, -3). [5]

5 4 4 ,

and find the point in

[5]

Question 4 (a) (b) Prove that: Tan-1[Sin-1(1/17) + Cos-1(9/85] = ½. A, B and C represent three switches in ,,on position and A', B' and C' represent the three switches in ,,off position. Construct a switching circuit representing the polynomial: (A + B)( B'+ C)(A'+C'). Using the laws of Boolean Algebra, show that the above polynomial is equivalent to AB' + AC + B and construct an equivalent switching circuit. 26 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013 [5] [5]

Question 5 (a) (b) Using suitable substitution, find

dy for y Tan dx

1

1 x2 1 x

[5] [5]

Show that the right circular cone of least curved surface area and given volume has an altitude equal to 2 times the radius of the base.

Question 6 (a) Evaluate:

tan x tan 2 x dx 1 tan 2 x

(b) Sketch the graphs of y = x(4 - x) and find the area bounded by the curve, x ­ axis and the lines x = 0 and x = 5.

[5]

[5]

Question 7 (a) Calculate Spearmans rank correlation for the following data: Advertisement cost ( in thousands) Sales ( in lakhs) (b) 39 65 62 90 82 75 25 98 36 78 [5]

47

53

58

86

62

68

60

91

51

84 [5]

Fit a straight line to the following data, treating y as dependent variable: x y 14 22 12 23 13 22 14 24 12 24

Hence, predict the value of y when x = 16.

Question 8 (a) Bag I has two red and three black balls, bag II has four red and one black ball and bag III has three white and two black balls. A bag is selected at random and a ball is drawn at random. What is the probability of drawing a red ball? A man makes attempts to hit a target. The probability of hitting the target is 3/5. Find the probability that the man hit the target at least two times in five attempts. [5]

(b)

[5]

27 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 9 (a) (b) Solve: (Tan-1y ­ x) dy = (1 + y2) dx. If z = x + iy, = (2 ­ iz) / (2z ­ i) and it in the complex plane. = 1, find the locus of z and illustrate [5] [5]

SECTION B Question 10 (a) Find the shortest distance between the lines whose vector equations are:

^ ^ ^

[5]

r r

(1 t ) i (t

^

2) j (3 2t ) k and

^ ^

( s 1) i (2s 1) j (2s 1) k

(b)

Find the equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 1, -1) and perpendicular to the planes x + 2y + 3z ­ 7 = 0 and 2x ­ 3y + 4z = 0.

[5]

Question 11 (a) (b) Show that a b

a.a a.b

a.b b.b

[5]

Using Vector method, prove that the line segment joining the midpoints of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third side and equal to the half of it.

[5]

Question 12 (a) A manufacturer has three machines operators A, B and C. The first operator A produces 1% defective items, whereas the other two operators B and C produce 5% and 7% defective items respectively. A is on the job for 50% of the time, B is on the job for 30% of the time and C is on the job for 20% of the time. A defective item is produced. What is the probability that it was produced by A? If a coin is tossed ten times, find the probability of getting: (i) (ii) Exactly six heads At least six heads. [5]

(b)

[5]

28 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

SECTION C

Question 13 (a) An aeroplane can carry a maximum of 200 passengers. A profit of 1000 is made on each executive class ticket and a profit of 600 is made on each economy class ticket. The airline reserves at least 20 seats for executive class. However, at least four times as many passengers prefer to travel by economy class than by the executive class. Determine how many tickets of each type must be sold in order to maximise the profit for the airline. What is the maximum profit earned? How much should be a company set aside at the beginning of each year if it has to buy a machine expected to cost 2,00,000 at the end of six years, when the rate of interest is 10% per annum, compounded annually. (Use (1.1)6 = 1.772) Question 14 (a) Given the total cost function for x units of a commodity as: C(x) = (i) (ii) (b) [5] [5]

(b)

[5]

x3 3

3x 2 7x 16,

find:

The marginal cost. The average cost. [5]

(iii) Show that the marginal average cost is given by { x MC ­ C(x)}/ x2?. A bill of 12,750 was payable 60 days after sight. It was accepted on 4th March 1990 and discounted on 25th March 1990. What was the discounted value of the bill if the rate of interest was 7/2% per annum?

Question 15 (a) Calculate the index number for 1979 with 1970 as the base year by using the weighted average of price relative method: Commodity Weight Price (in ) 1970 A B C D 22 48 17 13 2.50 3.30 6.25 0.65 1979 6.20 4.40 12.75 0.90 [5]

29 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(b) Calculate the three yearly moving averages of the data given below and plot them on a [5] graph paper:

Year Production (in tonnes) 1983 137 1984 140 1985 134 1986 137 1987 151 1988 121 1989 124 1990 159 1991 157 1992 169 1993 1994

172

150

30 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PHYSICS

PAPER ­ 1 (THEORY)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions in Part I and six questions from Part II, choosing two questions from each of the Sections A, B and C. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. (Material to be supplied: Log tables including Trigonometric functions) A list of useful physical constants is given at the end of this paper. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------PART I (20 Marks) Answer all questions. Question 1 A. Choose the correct alternative (a), (b), (c) or (d) for each of the questions given below: (i) Two point charges 17.7 C and -17.7 C, separated by a very small distance, are kept inside a large hollow metallic sphere. Electric flux emanating through the sphere is: (a) (b) (c) (d) (ii) 2 -2 4 106 Vm 106 Vm 106 Vm [5]

Zero

Ohms Law, in vector form is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

J = E J=

V = IR

E

J

E

=

31 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(iii)

If the current (I) flowing through a circular coil, its radius (R) and number of turns (N) in it are each doubled, magnetic flux density at its centre becomes: (a) (b) (c) (d) Two times Four htimes Eight times Sixteen times

(iv)

If two thin lenses having focal lengths f1 and f2 and dispersive powers (of their materials) 1 and 2 respectively, are kept in contact, condition for their achromatism is: (a) (b) (c) (d)

1 1

1

f

2 2

2

2

f

0

(f2 ) 2 0

(f1 ) 2

f2

2

1

f1

1

f

(v)

2 1

f

2 2

Ratio of the radius of third Bohr orbit to the radius of second Bohr orbit in hydrogen atom is: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2:3 4:9 9:4 :2 [15]

B.

Answer all questions given below briefly and to the point: (i) A dielectric slab of relative premittivity (i.e. dielectric constant ) 6 is introduced between the two plates of an 8 F air capacitor, in order to completely occupy the space between the two plates. Find the new capacitance of the capacitor. What is the ratio P1: P2 of electric power deveoloped in R1 and R2 shown in Figure 1 below? R1=6 ^^^^^^^

I I

(ii)

^^^^^^^

R2=9

Figure 1 32 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x) (xi) (xii) (xiii) (xiv) (xv)

Current ,,I flowing through a metallic wire of area of cross-section ,,a is given by the equation I = naevd. What is the meaning of the symbols ,,n and ,,vd? State two conditions which must be satisfied in order ito apply Tangent law in magnetism. A metallic wire carrying a current is kept in a uniform magnetic field, at different angles. At what angle, is the force acting on it maximum? What type of wave front is associated with a line source of light? Calculate the polarizing angle for glass whose refractive index is 1.6. What is the optical power in dioptre of a concave lens of focal length 50 cm? What is meant by ,,resolving power of a telescope? How can the defect of short sightedness be corrected? Out of the following, which one cannot be the charge of a body? +8.0 10-19C, -3.2 10-19C, 2.4 10-19C, or 6.4 10-19C Name the series of lines in the hydrogen spectrum which lies in the infrared region. Explain the statement: "Half life of Polonium is 3.8 days." How much matter has to be destroyed to create 9 1013J of energy? In Semi-Conductor Physics, what is LED? PART II (50 Marks) Answer six questions in this part, choosing two questions from each of the Sections A, B and C. SECTION A Answer any two questions.

Question 2 (a) Figure 2 below shows an electric dipole AB of length l kept in a uniform electric field [3]

E:

E

+q A -q B Figure 2 (i) Show the electrostatic force acting on each of the charges forming the dipole. 33 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(ii) Hence, obtain an expression for the torque acting on the dipole. (b) Two plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor are pulled apart with the help of insulating handles, till their separation is doubled. Compare the new electrostatic potential energy of the capacitor with the old. (c) In Figure 3 below, find the reading of the voltmeter(V), having a resistance of 2000:

42V R1 R2

[3]

[3]

^^^^^^ 3000

A

^^^^^^ 3000

V V

B

Figure 3 Question 3 (a) (b) Draw a labelled diagram of a potentiometer circuit used to measure internal resistance of a cell. In this experiment, what is the expression for the internal resistance ,,r? Apply Kirchoffs Laws to determine the currents I1 and I2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4 below:

A I1 16V, 2 F

[3] [3]

3 8 B 4

3 E 4

I2

8V, 1

(c)

Figure 4 You are given a bar. How will you identify experimentally whether it is made of a ferro-magnetic, paramagnetic or a diamagnetic material?

[3]

34 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 4 (a) Using Amperes Circuital Law and with the help of a labelled diagram, show that magnetic flux density ,,B at a distance r from a long straight conductor is given by: B= (b) (c) [3]

I , where the terms have their usual meaning. 2 r

o

Define ,,time constant of an LR circuit. What is its MKS unit? (i) In the circuit shown in Figure 5 below, calculate phase difference between the current and the supply voltage: 2H 500 4 F

[2] [4]

E = 300 Sin (500t) Figure 5 (ii) What is meant by the term band width of an LCR circuit? SECTION B Answer any two questions Question 5 (a) With reference to radio wave communication, explain the terms: (i) (ii) (b) Amplitude modulation Frequency modulation [3] [2]

In Youngs double slit experiment, using light of wavelength 600 nm, 10th bright fringe is obtained on a screen, 3mm from the centre of the pattern. If the screen is 120 cms away from the slits, calculate: (i) (ii) Distance between the two slits Fringe width, i.e. fringe separation.

(c)

What is meant by diffraction of light? What is an optical grating? State its use.

[3]

35 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 6 (a) A ray of light, LM, incident normally on one face AB of a prism ABC having refracting angle A = 50o grazes the adjacent face AC (See Figure 6 below). What is the refractive index of its material?

A L M 50o

[2]

B

C

Figure 6 (b A convex spherical surface having radius of curvature of 20cm separates air from glass. ) When a point object ,,O is kept in air, on its axis, at a distance of 50 cm from its pole, (see Figure 7), a real image ,,I is formed in glass at 300 cm from the pole P. Calculate the refractive index of glass. [3]

Figure 7

36 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(c) An optical system consists of a thin convex lens ,,L of focal length f = 15 cm and a convex mirror M having radius of curvature R=36 cm, arranged co-axially at a distance of 24 cm. (See Figure 8 below). Where should an object O be kept so that its inverted image I formed by the lens mirror combination coincides with the object itself?

L M

[3]

O

Figure 8

Question 7 (a) A narrow and parallel beam of white light is incident on a convex lens, parallel to its principal axis. Draw a labelleld diagram to show how coloured images are formed by the lens. Find the distance between the two lenses of a Compound Microscope if the final image formed by the microscope is virtual and lies at a distance of 25 cm to the left of the eye-piece. Magnifying power of the microscope is 30 and focal lengths of objective and eyepiece are 2cm and 5cm, respectively. You are provided with two convex lenses having focal lengths 4 cm and 80 cm, respectively, to form an astronomical telescope. (i) (ii) Which lens would you use as an objective of an astronomical telescope and which one as an eyepiece? If the telescope is in normal adjustment, what is its: (1) (2) Magnifying power? Length? [2]

(b)

[4]

(c)

[2]

37 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

SECTION C Answer any two questions. Question 8 (a) An electron is passed through a potential difference of 400 V. (i) (ii) (b) (i) (ii) Calculate the speed acquired by the electron. If it enters a transverse and uniform magnetic field, what is the nature of the path described by the electron? Explain the statement: "Work function of a certain metal is 2.0 eV." Calculate the maximum wavelength of electro-magnetic radiation which will cause photo emission from this metal. [3] [3]

(c)

What is de Broglie hypothesis? What conclusion can be drawn from Davisson and Germer's experiment?

[2]

Question 9 (a) Figure 9 below shows a simple diagram of a modern X ray tube. (i.e. Coolidge tube).

6V F T Vacuum

[3]

mA

-

+

66kV

Figure 9

(i) (ii) (b) (c)

Find the minimum wavgelength of the X rays emitted by the X ray tube. What will be the effect of replacing the 6 V battery by a 9 V battery on the emitted X rays? [2] [3]

What is meant by mass defect of a nucleus? How is it related to its binding energy? Starting with the Law of Radioactive Disintegration, show that: N = Noe- t , where the terms have their usual meaning.

38 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 10 (a) Calculate the energy released in the following nuclear reaction:

2 1

[3]

H

2 1

H

4 2

He

Mass of H = 2.01419 u, Mass of He = 4.00277 u (b) (c) Draw a labelled circuit diagram of an arrangement used to study characteristic curves of a PNP or an NPN transistor in common emitter mode. What is the symbol of a NAND gate? Write its truth table. [3] [2]

Useful Constants and Relations: 1. 2. 3. 4. Plancks constant Speed of Light in vacuum Charge of an electron Mass of an electron (h) (c) (-e) me

o

= 6.6 = 3.0 = 1.6 = 9.0 = 8.85 = 1.6

10-34 Js 108 ms-1 10-19 C 10-31 kg 10-12 Fm-1 10-19 J

leV lu

= 931 MeV = 3.14

39 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PHYSICS

PAPER ­ 2

(PRACTICAL) (Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ALL ANSWERS MUST BE WRITTEN IN THE ANSWER BOOKLET

PROVIDED SEPARATELY. If squared paper is used, it must be attached to the answer booklet. Marks are given for a clear record of observations actually made, for their suitability and accuracy, and for the use made of them. A brief statement of the method may be given if necessary. The theory of the experiment is not required unless specifically asked for. Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they have been made. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer. Mathematical tables and squared paper are provided. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions. You should not spend more than one and a half hours on Question 1.

Question 1 This experiment determines the focal length of a convex lens by the displacement method. Determine the approximate focal length f of the given convex lens (marked M) by projecting the image of a distant object on a wall or a screen. Record the value of f in cm.

[10]

40 ISC Specimen Question Paper

M O

I

x Figure 1(a) Now arrange the object pin O, the image pin I and the lens M on the optical bench or table top as shown in Figure 1(a) so that the tips of O and I lie on the principal axis of the lens. Adjust the distance x between O and I to be equal to 70 cm. Ensure that this separation is maintained throughout this particular set up. Move the convex lens towards the pin I and adjust its position until the diminished and inverted image of O coincides with the image pin I. Record the position M1 of the lens on the metre scale. Show this reading to the Visiting Examiner.

O

I

M2

d x Figure 1(b)

M1

Now move the lens towards the object pin O and adjust its position as shown in Figure 1(b) until the magnified and inverted image of O coincides with I. Record the new position M2 of the lens. The difference between the two positions M1 and M2 is the displacement of the lens. Calculate the value of d. Repeat the experiment to obtain four more sets of x and d where the range of x is between 70 cm and 100.0 cm. 41 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Note that for each set, the positions of O and I are kept constant and M1 and M2 positions are obtained by moving the lens M only. x2 d 2 2 2 Tabulate the five sets of values of x, x , d, d and y = . Compute y upto three 100 significant figures only. y Plot a graph y against x. Draw the line of best fit and determine its slope S = . x Calculate the focal length F upto one decimal place, where F = 25 S. Question 2 This experiment determines resistivity of the material of a wire. You are provided with a 1 m long uniform wire AB stretched along a metre scale and provided with binding terminals at the two ends. You are also provided with a resistance box RB, a piece of wire ,,P wound on a wooden bobbin and provided with binding terminals, a jockey ,,J, a 2 V d.c. power supply (E), a plug key ,,K, a centre-zero galvanometer ,,G and a few connecting wires. Now set up the circuit as shown in Figure 2 below. Ensure that all connections are tight. P · RB · G · [7]

A·0.0 cm

J l E Figure 2 N ( K )

·B

Take out R = 1 plug from the resistance box RB. By touching the jockey at various points on the wire AB, find the null point N for which the galvanometer shows no deflection. Record l = AN in cm. Show this reading to the Visiting Examiner. Repeat the experiment for five more values of R in the range 1 ­ 10 , each time finding and recording the value of l.

42 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Tabulate the values of R, l and y =

100 R . Compute y upto one decimal place. l

Plot a graph of y vs R and draw the line of best fit. Determine the slope S of Change in y the line using S = . Change in R Record the value of S upto three significant figures. From the graph, read and record the value Yo of Y when R = 0. Question 3 Find the least count of the given micro meter screw gauge. Using it, determine the diameter ,,D of the sample wire ,,W. Record its value in your answer book in mm. Show your reading of the screw gauge to the visiting examiner. Then find the radius r of the wire in cm. Using this value of r and the value of Yo of Question 2, find the value of K where: K= Question 4 Show the following to the Visiting Examiner for assessment: (a) (b) Project Physics Practical File. [7] [3] [3]

r 2Yo 104.

43 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

CHEMISTRY

PAPER ­ 1 (THEORY)

(Three Hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions in Part I and six questions from Part II, choosing two questions from Section A, two from Section B and two from Section C. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. Balanced equations must be given wherever possible and diagrams where they are helpful. When solving numerical problems, all essential working must be shown. In working out problems use the following data: Gas constant R = 1.987 cal deg-1 mol-1 = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1 = 0.0821 dm3 atm K-1mol-1 1 l atm = 1 dm3 atm = 101.3 J. 1 Farday = 96500 Coulombs. Avagadro's number = 6.023 1023.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------PART I (20 Marks) Answer all questions.

Question 1 (a) Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the brackets: (hydrolysis, reduction, oxidation, vacant, osmotic, above, benzoic acid, phenol, aniline, below, can, decreases, increases, cannot, crystal, ionization, rate, rate constant.) (i) A catalyst ______ start a reaction but it can increase the ______ of the reaction. 44 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

[5]

(ii)

Electrons trapped in the ______ sites of the __________ lattice are called F-centres.

(iii) An aqueous solution of sugar boils ________ 100oC and freezes _______ 0oC. (iv) Toluene on ________ with alkaline potassium permanganate gives________. (v) (b) The degree of _________ of ammonium hydroxide ________ on addition of ammonium chloride.

Complete the following statements by selecting the correct alternative from [5] the choices given:(i) For reaction 2N2O5 2 NO2 + O2, the rate and rate constants are -4 -1 -1 1.02 10 mole litre sec and 3.4 10-5 sec-1 respectively. The concentration of N2O5 at that time will be: (1) 1.732 mol lit-1 (2) 3 mol lit-1 (3) 1.02 10-4 mol lit-1 (4) 3.2 105 mol lit-1 (ii) Ethanoic acid dimerises in solution. Its molecular mass determined from its depression of freezing point of the solution will be: (1) Same as the theoretical value (2) Half its theoretical value (3) Double its theoretical value (4) One third of its theoretical value. (iii) Magnesium displaces hydrogen from dilute acid solution because: (1) The oxidation potential of magnesium is less than that of hydrogen. (2) The reduction potential of magnesium is less than that of hydrogen. (3) Both magnesium and hydrogen have same oxidation potential. (4) Both magnesium and hydrogen have same reduction potential . (iv) In the series of reactions CH3COOH product C is: (1) Acetyl chloride 45 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

NH3

A

heat

B

P2O5

C,

the

(2) Ammonium acetate (3) Acetic anhydride (4) Methyl cyanide.

(v)

In the reaction PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) opposite direction, if: (1) Chlorine is added. (2) PCl3 is added (3) Pressure is increased (4) Pressure is reduced.

PCl5(g), the equilibrium will shift in the

(c)

Answer the following questions: (i) (ii) Among equimolal aqueous solutions of MgCl2, NaCl, FeCl3 and C12H22O11, which will show minimum osmotic pressure? Why? the reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is 1.5 10-5 (mol /lit)-2, write the 1 3 value of K c1 for the reaction N 2 H2 NH3 2 2 If

[5]

K c for

(iii) The pH of acetic acid decreases on dilution. State the Law governing this statement. (iv) Xenon gives a series of flourides, but Helium and Neon do not. Why? (At. No: Xe = 54, Ne = 10, He = 2) (v) Calculate the number of coulombs required to deposite 20.25 g of aluminium (at. mass = 27) from a solution containing Al+3.

(d)

Match the following: (i) (ii) CHCl3 + NaOH Proteins (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Fluorine Starch Ammonia Peptide linkage Isocyanide test

[5]

(iii) Carbohydrate (iv) Lewis base (v) KHF2

46 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PART II (50 Marks)

Answer six questions choosing two from Section A, two from Section B and two from Section C. SECTION A Answer any two questions. Question 2 (a) (i) (ii) A certain aqueous solution boils at 100.303oC. What is its freezing point? Kb for water = 0.5 K mol-1 and Kf = 1.87 K mol-1. [2] [4]

(b)

A solution containing 1g of sodium chloride in 100g of water freezes at 0.604oC. Calculate the degree of dissociation of sodium chloride. (Na = 23, Cl = 35.5, Kf for water = 1.87 k mol-1 (i) Explain graphically how the rate of a reaction changes with every 10 oC rise in temperature. (ii) How is the activation energy of a reaction related to its rate constant? (iii) The half life period for the decomposition of a substance is 2.5 hours. If the initial weight of the substance is 160 g, how much of the substance will be left after 10 hours?

[2] [1] [1]

Question 3 (a) (i) (ii) (b) Define Frenkel defects of an ionic crystal. Iron has an edge length 288 pm. Its density is 7.86 gm cm-1. Find the type of cubic lattice to which the crystal belongs. (at. mass of iron = 56) [1] [3]

Explain giving reasons why: (i) (ii) Mg(OH)2 is sparingly soluble in water but highly soluble in ammonium chloride solution. When H2S is passed through acidified zinc sulphate solution, white precipitate of zinc sulphide is not formed. [2] [2] [2]

(c)

The equilibrium constant for the reaction H2(g)+I2(g) 2HI(g) is 49.5 at 440oC. If 0.2 mole of H2 and 0.2 mole of I2 are allowed to react in a 10 litre flask at this temperature, calculate the concentration of each at equilibrium.

47 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 4

(a)

(i) (ii)

What is specific conductance of a solution and what is its unit? How is it related to the equivalent conductance of the solution? 2.5 amperes of current is passed through copper sulphate solution for 30 minutes. Calculate the number of copper atoms deposited at the cathode (Cu = 63.54). Eored W = -0.140 V X = - 2.93 V Y = +0.80 V Z = +1.50 V Arrange them in the increasing order of reducing power.

[2] [2]

(iii) Four metals W, X, Y and Z have the following values of Eored.:

[2]

(b)

(i) (ii)

On adding sodium acetate to aqueous solution of acetic acid, what happens to the pH of the solution? Give a reason for your answer. Calculate the pH of an aqueous solution of ammonium formate assuming complete dissociation. pka for formic acid = 3.8 and pkb of ammonia = 4.8

[2] [1] [1]

(c)

Explain auto catalysis with one example.

SECTION B

Answer any two questions Question 5

(a)

(i) (ii)

State the geometry and magnetic property of tetracarbonyl nickel according to [1] the valence bond theory. What type of structural isomers are [Pt(OH)2(NH3)4]SO4 and [2] [Pt SO4(NH3)4] (OH)2? How will you identify the isomers with a chemical test? [2] Treatment of cancer. Treatment of lead poisoning.

(b)

Name the co-ordination compound used for the following: (i) (ii)

48 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 6

(a)

Explain giving reasons why: (i) (ii) The halogens are coloured and the colour deepens from fluorine to iodine. In a given transition series, the atomic radius does not change very much with increasing atomic number. [2] [2] [1]

(b)

Draw the resonating structures of ozone molecule.

Question 7

(a)

(i) (ii)

Give equations to show the use of aqua regia in dissolving platinum. Draw the structure of Xenon hexafluoride molecule and state the hybridisation of the central atom and the structure of the molecule. Ozone and alkaline potassium iodide. Sodium sulphite and acidified potassium permanganate.

[1] [2] [2]

(b)

Write balanced equations for the following reactions: (i) (ii)

SECTION C

Answer any two questions. Question 8 (a) Write equations for the following reactions and name the reactions: (i) (ii) (b) (i) (ii) Benzene diazonium chloride is treated with copper and hydrochloric acid. Formaldehyde is treated with 50% caustic soda solution. Write the structures of the isomers of 3 phenyl prop-2-enoic acid. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the following pairs of compounds: (1) CH(CH2)3 CH2OH and (C2H5)2 CHOH (2) H C CH3 OH (c) Br and Br OH [3] H C CH3 [1] [2] [3]

Give one good chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds: (i) Urea and acetamide (ii) 1-propanol and 2 methyl 2-propanol. 49 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(d) Name the monomeric units of Nylon 66. Question 9 (a) Identify the compounds A, B, C, D, E and F. C6H6

A

[1]

[3]

C

C6 H5CH3

B

C6 H5CHO

alc. KCN E

C6 H5CH 2 OH D

F C6H5COOH [3] [3] [1]

(b)

How can the following conversions be brought about? (i) (ii) Ethanoic acid to ethylamine. Aniline to benzoic acid.

(c)

What is a zwitter ion? Represent the zwitter ion of glycine.

Question 10 (a) An organic compound A on treatment with ethanol gives a carboxylic acid B and a compound C. Hydrolysis of C under acidic condition gives B and D. Oxidation of D with acidified potassium permanganate also gives B. B on heating with calcium hydroxide gives E with molecular formula C3H6O. E does not give Tollens test but reacts with iodine and caustic potash to give a yellow precipitate. (i) (ii) (b) (i) (ii) (c) (i) (ii) Identify A, B, C, D and E. Write balanced equation of E with iodine and caustic potash and name the reaction. Name the functional groups that distinguish glucose and fructose. How will you distinguish between the two compounds? What are polyesters? Give one example of polyester and the monomers. Aniline and benzoyl chloride. Diethyl ether and hydroiodic acid (cold). [2] [2] [2] [4]

Give balanced equations for the following reactions:

50 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

SPECIMEN PAPER I OF II FOR PAPER 2

CHEMISTRY PAPER ­ 2

(PRACTICAL)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ALL ANSWERS MUST BE WRITTEN IN THE ANSWER BOOKLET PROVIDED SEPARATELY. Question 1 is an oxidation-reduction titration in which sufficient working details are given. All essential working must be shown. Question 2 is an experiment on the rate of reaction. Sufficient working must be shown. Question 3 is an exercise in qualitative analysis. Mathematical Tables and graph paper are provided. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Read the questions carefully and follow the given instructions. Attempt all questions. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Attempt all questions. Question 1 You are provided with two solutions as follows: C-10 is a solution prepared by dissolving 1.04 gms of potassium manganate (VII) KMnO4 per litre. C-11 is a solution prepared by dissolving 13.4 gms of hydrated ammonium iron (II) sulphate crystals, (NH4)2SO4.FeSO4.xH2O per litre. [8]

51 ISC Specimen Question Paper

PROCEDURE: Rinse and fill the burette with the solution C-10 (KMnO4). Pipette out 20 ml or 25 ml of C-11 (hydrated ammonium iron(II) sulphate) into a clean conical flask. To this, add 20ml of dilute sulphuric acid C-12, specially provided for titration. Titrate the solution with C-10 (KMnO4) till one drop of this gives a light permanent pink colour to the solution in the conical flask. Ensure that the pink colour does not disappear on shaking the contents of the conical flask. Repeat the experiment to get at least two concordant readings. Tabulate your readings. State: (A) (B) The capacity of the pipette used. The titre value you intend to use in your calculations.

Show the titre value to the Visiting Examiner. The equations for the above reactions are as follows: 2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 3H2O + 5[O] 10(NH4)2SO4.FeSO4.xH2O+5H2SO4 + 5[O] 10(NH4)2SO4 + 5Fe3(SO4)3+ 10 xH2O + 5H2O Relative atomic masses: K = 39 Fe = 56 S = 32 N = 14 H = 1 Mn = 55 O = 16

Calculate the following: (i) (ii) The molarity of potassium manganate (VII) solution C-10. The molarity of hydrated ammonium iron(II) sulphate solution C-11.

(iii) The molecular mass of hydrated ammonium iron(II) sulphate deduced from the experimental data. (iv) The numerical value of x.

52 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

*Question 2 You are provided with two solutions as follows: (a) (b) C-13 is a solution of sodium thiosulphate of strength 0.05 M C-14 is a solution of hydrochloric acid of strength 0.05 M.

[5]

PROCEDURE: Take the beakers labelled 1 to 5. Put 0.05 M sodium thiosulphate solution and distilled water according to the following table: Beaker Number Volume of 0.05 M sodium thiosulphate (ml) Volume of distilled water added (ml) 1 50 0 2 40 10 3 30 20 4 20 30 5 10 40

Now place the beaker labelled 1 on a white paper with a cross mark in black. View the cross-mark through the solution. Now pipette out 10 ml of 0.05 M hydrochloric acid C-14 into it and immediately start a stop-watch. View the solution from the top and stop the stop-watch as soon as the cross on the paper becomes invisible. Note the time in the stop-watch. Repeat the experiment by adding 10 ml of 0.05 M hydrochloric acid C-14, to the beakers labelled 2, 3, 4 and 5 and note the time taken in each case for the cross mark on the paper to become invisible. Tabulate your results. Sodium thiosulphate reacts with hydrochloric acid to produce colloidal sulphur which makes the cross-mark invisible. The reaction is given by: Na2S2O3 (aq) + 2HCl(aq) From your results: (i) (ii) Plot a graph between the concentration of sodium thiosulphate and the time taken for the cross-mark on the paper to become just invisible. Predict the effect of change in concentration of sodium thiosulphate on the rate of the above reaction from the nature of your graph. 2NaCl(aq) + SO2(g) + H2O(aq) + S (colloidal)

*Note: Question 2 will be set from either Rate of Reaction or Identification of Organic Compounds.

53 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 3 Analyse qualitatively the substance C-15 which contains two anions and two cations. Identify these ions. (a) While testing for anions you must mention: (i) (ii) (iii) (b) How the solution/soda extract was prepared. How the gases were identified. The confirmatory test for anions.

[7]

Show the results as required to the Visiting Examiner. While testing for cations you must mention: (i) (ii) How the original solution for group analysis was prepared. The formal group analysis with pertinent group reagents.

(iii) The confirmatory test for each cation. Show the results as required to the Visiting Examiner. Note: Use of qualitative analysis booklet/table is not allowed.

Question 4 Show the following to the Visiting Examiner for assessment: (a) (b) Project Chemistry Practical File. [7] [3]

54 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

SPECIMEN PAPER II OF II FOR PAPER 2

CHEMISTRY

PAPER ­ 2 (PRACTICAL)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ALL ANSWERS MUST BE WRITTEN IN THE ANSWER BOOKLET PROVIDED SEPARATELY. Question 1 is an oxidation-reduction titration in which sufficient working details are given. All essential working must be shown. Question 2 is an exercise dealing with the identification of organic compounds. Credit will be given for precise observations recorded and for well drawn deductions. Question 3 is an exercise in qualitative analysis. Mathematical Tables are provided. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Read the questions carefully and follow the given instructions. Attempt all questions. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Attempt all questions. Question 1 You are provided with two solutions as follows: C-10 is a solution prepared by dissolving 1.04 gms of potassium manganate (VII) KMnO4 per litre. C-11 is a solution prepared by dissolving 13.4 gms of hydrated ammonium iron (II) sulphate crystals, (NH4)2SO4.FeSO4.xH2O per litre. 55 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013 [8]

PROCEDURE: Rinse and fill the burette with the solution C-10 (KMnO4). Pipette out 20 ml or 25 ml of C-11 (hydrated ammonium iron(II) sulphate) into a clean conical flask. To this, add 20ml of dilute sulphuric acid C-12, specially provided for titration. Titrate the solution with C-10 (KMnO4) till one drop of this gives a light permanent pink colour to the solution in the conical flask. Ensure that the pink colour does not disappear on shaking the contents of the conical flask. Repeat the experiment to get at least two concordant readings. Tabulate your readings. State: (A) (B) The capacity of the pipette used. The titre value you intend to use in your calculations.

Show the titre value to the Visiting Examiner. The equations for the above reactions are as follows: 2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 3H2O + 5[O] 10(NH4)2SO4.FeSO4.xH2O+5H2SO4 + 5[O] 10(NH4)2SO4 + 5Fe3(SO4)3+ 10 xH2O + 5H2O Relative atomic masses: K = 39 Fe = 56 S = 32 N = 14 H = 1 Mn = 55 O = 16

Calculate the following: (i) (ii) The molarity of potassium manganate (VII) solution C-10. The molarity of hydrated ammonium iron(II) sulphate solution C-11.

(iii) The molecular mass of hydrated ammonium iron(II) sulphate deduced from the experimental data. (iv) The numerical value of x.

56 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

*Question 2 Substances C-13 and C-14 are organic compounds. Carry out the following experiment and note all the changes taking place at each step of the experiments. Note the smell of the substance formed, colour of the substance obtained, colour of the precipitate formed, and solubility in excess of the reagent and any other observations you may have. State the identity of each compound on the basis of the experiments and observational changes. PROCEDURE: (a) Substance C-13: 1. 2. Take 3 ­ 4 drops of C-13 in a test tube, add about 0.5 grams of potassium hydrogen sulphate and heat strongly. Take 0.2 grams of borax in a test tube and add 5 ml of water to it, and shake well to get a clear solution. To this, add 2 drops of phenolphthalein solution. Now add 2- 3 drops of C-13 to this, shake well, warm and cool. Take about 4 ­ 5 drops of C-13 in a test tube. Add about 1 ml of copper sulphate solution followed by a few drops of Sodium Hydroxide solution. Show the results as required to the Visiting Examiner. (b) Substance C-14: 1. Take 2 ml freshly prepared Sodium Nitroprusside solution. To this, add 2 ml of C-14 followed by Sodium Hydroxide solution drop by drop, and warm. Take 2 ml of C-14 and to this add 2 ml of saturated Sodium Bisulphite solution. Shake. Take 1 ml of C-14. To this, add 2 ml of Iodine solution followed by 10% Sodium Hydroxide solution. Warm on a water bath and cool. Take 2 ml of C-14 in a test tube, add 1 ml of Mercuric chloride solution. Now, add Sodium Hydroxide solution drop-wise and shake. Show the results as required to the Visiting Examiner.

[5]

3.

2. 3. 4.

*Note: Question 2 will be set from either Rate of Reaction or Identification of Organic Compounds.

57 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 3 Analyse qualitatively the substance C-15 which contains two anions and two cations. Identify these ions. (a) While testing for anions you must mention: (i) (ii) (iii) How the solution/soda extract was prepared. How the gases were identified. The confirmatory test for anions.

[7]

Show the results as required to the Visiting Examiner. (b) While testing for cations you must mention: (i) (ii) How the original solution for group analysis was prepared. The formal group analysis with pertinent group reagents.

(iii) The confirmatory test for each cation. Show the results as required to the Visiting Examiner. Note: Use of qualitative analysis booklet/table is not allowed.

Question 4 Show the following to the Visiting Examiner for assessment: (a) (b) Project Chemistry Practical File. [7] [3]

58 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

BIOLOGY

PAPER - 1 (THEORY) (Botany and Zoology)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions in Part I and five questions in Part II, choosing three questions from Section A and two questions from Section B. All working including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to, the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

PART I (20 Marks)

Answer all questions. Question 1 (a) Give one significant difference between each of the following: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (b) Plasmolysis and Deplasmolysis. Tendon and Ligament. Threatened and endangered species. Vasectomy and Tubectomy. Absorption spectrum and Action spectrum. [5] [5]

Explain what would happen if: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) A green plant is exposed to green light only. The cerebellum is injured. Short day plants are exposed to red light followed by exposure to far-red light. There is over-secretion of growth hormone after adolescence. A flower bud is emasculated and auxin is applied on the stigma.

59 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(c)

Each of the following questions / statements have four suggested answers. Rewrite the correct answer in each case: (i) Which one of the following does not depend on a large surface area for its efficient functioning? (A) A root hair (B) An alveolus of the lungs (C) A villus of the small intestine (D) A ventricle of the human heart. (ii) In a non-woody herbaceous plant, support is provided by: (A) Turgor pressure on cell walls (B) Atmospheric pressure on cells (C) Suction pressure of the cells (D) Root pressure. (iii) The storage of sugar as glycogen in the liver is increased in the presence of: (A) Thyroxin (B) Rennin (C) Insulin (D) Adrenalin (iv) The specific function of light energy in the process of photosynthesis is to: (A) Reduce carbon dioxide (B) Synthesise glucose (C) Activate chlorophyll (D) Split water (v) Which one of the following helps the eye to adjust the focal length of the lens? (A) Cornea (B) Aquous humour (C) Ciliary body (D) Conjunctiva (vi) Introduction of dead or weak microbes into the body is known as: (A) Immunisation (B) Vaccine (C) Sterilization (D) Vaccination 60

[3]

ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(d)

Mention the most significant function of the following: (i) (ii) Ear ossicles Hyaluronidase

[3]

(iii) Thylakoid membranes (iv) Pericycle (v) (e) Piameter [2] (vi) Lymphocytes State the best known contribution of: (i) (ii) Chardack Darwin

(iii) T.R. Malthus (iv) William Roentgen (f) Expand the following : (i) (ii) PEM BCG [2]

(iii) AIDS (iv) TSH

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A Answer any three questions. Question 2 (a) (b) (c) Draw a neat and fully labelled diagram of the V.S of a dicot leaf. Discuss the role of K ions in the opening and closing of stomata. What are aggregate fruits? Give two examples.

-1

[4] [3] [3]

Question 3 (a) (b) (c) How do nastic movements differ from tropic movements? Describe any three types of nastic movements in plants. Give an account of the Tunica Corpus Theory. Enlist the general functions of mineral elements in the life of a plant. What is meant by essentiality of an element? [4] [3] [3]

61 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 4 (a) (b) (c) Describe the process of digestion and absorption of fats. How is oxygen transported in the blood and released in the tissues? Draw a labelled diagram of the cochlea of the ear. [4] [3] [3]

Question 5 (a) (b) Describe the flow of blood through the heart during different phases of the cardiac cycle. Explain one cause and symptom of each of the following: (i) (ii) Constipation Uremia [4] [3]

(iii) Gout. (c) State the differences between bone and cartilage. [3]

Question 6 (a) (b) (c) Explain the counter current system in a nephron. Describe the structure and functions of the xylem. Write three differences between cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation. [4] [3] [3]

SECTION B Answer any two questions. Question 7 (a) (b) (c) Give an account of Lederbergs replica-plating experiment to show the genetic basis of adaptation. Explain three objections against Lamarks theory of inheritance. Define: (i) Biotic potential (ii) Gene pool (iii) Heterosis. [4] [3] [3]

62 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 8 (a) Write the causative agent and the most important symptom of each of the following diseases: (i) (ii) Dengue Tubercolosis [4]

(iii) Ascariasis (iv) Chicken pox. (b) (c) Explain the role of bacteria in improving soil fertility. What is Biomedical Engineering? Give two examples. [3] [3]

Question 9 (a) (b) (c) Briefly mention the measures you would suggest to control population explosion in India. Explain the origin of wheat in the form of a flow chart. What is amniocentesis? Explain its role in modern medical treatment. [4] [3] [3]

Question 10 (a) (b) Write two similarities and two differences between the Cro-Magnon man and the Homo sapiens. Explain each briefly: (i) (ii) (c) Captive breeding National Park [3] [4] [3]

(iii) In-situ conservation. What is plant introduction? Give two examples.

63 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

BIOLOGY

PAPER - 2

(PRACTICAL) (Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions. All working including rough work should be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ] Note: Q4 (Spotting) is to be attempted on a separate continuation sheet. The continuation sheet is to be handed over to the Supervising Examiner after the last observation. This continuation sheet should be attached to the main answer booklet of the candidate after the examination. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Question 1 (a) (b) Examine carefully the flower specimens D41 and D42 provided. Describe the floral characteristics of each in semi-technical terms. With a sharp razor blade, cut a longitudinal section of each specimen D41 and D42. Arrange a cut surface of each on a wet filter paper and show to the Visiting Examiner. Observe the cut surfaces carefully with a hand lens and record your observations as follows: Androecium (i) (ii) Relation of stamens to each other Nature of fixation of anthers D41 --D42 --[5]

(c)

Gynoecium (i) (ii) Nature of stigma Type of placentation -----

64 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(d) (e)

Make a neat labelled diagram of the cut surface of specimen D41. Take a fresh specimen of D42. With the help of a forcep, remove the whorls one by one, till you reach the gynoeceium. Now with a sharp razor blade, cut a transverse section of the ovary. Make a neat and labelled diagram of the transverse section. Name the families to which specimens D41 and D42 belong. Write two characteristics of each family. Write the floral formulae of specimen D41 and D42. Draw the floral diagram of specimen D42. Mention one economically important plant belonging to each family mentioned in (f) above. (Write the botanical name only.) [5]

(f) (g) (h) (i) (j)

Question 2 (a) Cut the potato provided transversely into two equal halves and name them as A and B. Peel off the skin as a ring, one cm deep, from the broad cut end of each half, which will act as a base. Scoop out a cavity from the rounded end of each potato-half with the help of a knife. The cavity should be 2 ­ 3 cms deep. Boil the potato-half B in water for 10 minutes. Pour distilled water into two petri dishes. Add two or three drops of red ink or eosin or safranin to the water in each dish. Now stand potato-half A in one dish and B in the other. Fill the cavity in A and B to half its depth, with 15% sugar solution and mark the level with an alpin. Leave the potato halves A and B as such for about an hour. Show the experimental set up to the Visiting Examiner. Record your observation of potato halves A and B after one hour. Give an explanation for your observation in each case. Why was water stained with red dye? Name the physiological process that has been studied by this experiment. Define the process. Why was potato B boiled?

(b) (c) (d)

(e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) (k) (l)

65 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 3 Make a temporary stained mount of a nerve cell from specimen D43. Proceed as follows: (a) With the help of forceps and scalpel, remove some substance from the centre of specimen D43. Tease it with the help of a needle. Stain it with methylene blue for two minutes. Blot out excess stain. Transfer the tissue to another slide. Tease with a needle. Put a drop of glycerine and cover it with a coverslip. Remove excess of glycerine with the help of a filter paper. Show your slide to the Visiting Examiner under low power microscope. (b) (c) (d) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the mount. Mention the number of cell/cells visible in the slide. Mention two identifying features of the cell/cells.

[5]

Question 4 Identify the given specimens A to E. Give two reasons to support your answer in each case. Draw a neat labelled diagram of each specimen. You are not allowed to spend more than three minutes for each spot. Note: Hand over your continuation sheets to the Supervising Examiner after you finish answering this question. Question 5 Show the following to the Visiting Examiner for assessment: (a) (b) Project Biology Practical File.

[5]

[7] [3]

66 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

BIOLOGY PAPER ­ 2 (PRACTICAL) List of Items for Spotting

Spotting: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. T.S. of blastula. An inflorescence of Sweet Pea flower. T.S. of monocot leaf. An experimental set up with light source for oxygen liberation during photosynthesis (beaker, hydrilla, test tube) Model of Human Brain.

67 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

HOME SCIENCE

PAPER 1 (THEORY)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions from Part I and five questions from Part II. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

PART I (20 Marks)

Answer all questions.

Question 1 Answer briefly each of the following questions: (i) Mention any four methods of increasing the nutritive value of food. (ii) Explain the effect of cooking on starch. (iii) Define the term food preservation. (iv) State the responsibilities of a consumer. (v) Name two adulterants present in jaggery. (vi) Name the method used for washing silk sarees. (vii) What sort of clothing is suitable for a travelling salesman? (viii) What is asepsis? (ix) Mention two ill effects of inadequate diet during adolescence. (x) State two advantages of cooking with solar energy. [10 2]

68 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PART II (50 Marks)

Answer any five questions. Question 2 With the advancement of science and technology, new fuels have come into use. In this context, explain: (a) (b) The new developments in cooking. The advantages of using bio-gas. [5] [5]

Question 3 (a) (b) Question 4 (a) It is important to plan meals in a balanced manner. Discuss giving suitable examples. (b) Why should a nutritional snack prepared for an adolescent be different from the one meant for an elderly person? [5] [5] Discuss some of the factors causing food spoilage. Explain some simple methods of food preservation. [5] [5]

Question 5 Indian markets are flooded with different kind of spurious products. In this context, explain the following: (a) (b) Defective packaging Importance of consumer education. [5] [5]

Question 6 (a) (b) Explain how electrical equipments at home can be used safely. Discuss five safety measures that can be adopted to prevent poisoning amongst children. [5] [5]

69 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 7 (a) (b) Explain the various steps involved in the laundering of a cotton shirt. Prepare a list of materials used in the above laundering process. [5] [5]

Question 8 Write short notes on each of the following: (a) (b) (c) Role of teachers in an adolescents life. Storage of non-perishable food. Dimensions of adulthood. [5] [5]

70 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

FASHION DESIGNING

PAPER 1 (THEORY)

(Three hours)

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer five questions, choosing at least two from Section A and two from Section B. Use illustrations/sketches/diagrams wherever necessary. All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions are given in brackets [ ]. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------SECTION A Question 1 (a) Discuss any five reasons why it is important for students of Fashion Designing to study ,,Textiles. (b) How are textile fibres classified? Question 2 (a) State two differences between each of the following pairs: (i) (ii) (b) (i) (ii) Question 3 Write short notes on each of the following: (a) (b) (c) (d) Felting Bonded fabrics Lace Macramé (knotting) [20] Plain Weave and Twill Weave Melt Spinning and Dry Spinning What are the advantages and disadvantages of Satin Weave? Explain and differentiate between Woven and Non-Woven fabrics. [4] [4] [12] [10] [10]

(iii) Silk and Wool

71 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 4 (a) Discuss the significance of colour in India. (b) Explain how Mehendi is used to dye fabrics. (c) Write short notes on each of the following: (i) (ii) Mekhala Chaddar Pochampali [10] [5] [5]

SECTION B

Question 5 What were the new inventions and innovations of fabrics and garments around the Edwardian period (1901-1920s)? Question 6 Describe the changing womens silhouettes from the ,,Disco Decade to the ,,Punk Period. Question 7 (a) (b) Make sketches and write a short note on the salwar kameez of Kashmiri women. Illustrate the sharara of Uttar Pradesh and using it as inspiration, design a contemporary one. [10] [10] [20] [20]

Question 8 (a) (b) Make sketches and write a short note on the Jodhpuri suit. Give the differences between each of the following: (i) Sherwani and Aachkan. (ii) Churidhar of Kutch and Churidhar of Aligarh. [10] [10]

72 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

FASHION DESIGNING PAPER 2 (PRACTICAL) (Three hours)

(Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer Question 1 (Compulsory). Attempt Question 2 and Question 3, selecting one of the two given options, in each question. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Question 1 (i) (ii) Tie and dye the given 12 12 sample of a white cotton/silk cloth in one colour, using two methods. Write the aim and the method used for the above process. [20] [5] [5]

(iii) Mention the materials and equipments required for the process. Question 2 Attempt any one of the following: (i) Fibre identification: You are given two different textile fibres. (a) State two tests for testing each of the given fibres. (b) Write in detail the procedure adopted in conducting the tests and the expected results. (c) Identify the two given textile fibres, making use of the procedure written by you. (d) Write your observations and conclusions. (e) Show the confirmatory tests and their results to the Examiner. OR (ii) Repair work: Write the procedure for repairing a hole in the given cloth material either by darning or by patchwork depending upon the size of the hole. (a) Prepare the materials for patch work / darning of the hole in the given cloth material. (b) Start the repair work either by darning or patch work and give the finishing touch. (c) Iron and show it to the Examiner. 73

[10]

ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 3 Attempt any one of the following: (i) Using your creative ideas print the given sample using vegetables and leaves. Show the finished sample to the Examiner. OR (ii) Do any two macramé knots using the given cards. The finished sample should be between 2.5 to 3 inches in length and at least 1 inch in width. Show the finished sample to the Examiner. [20]

74 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

COMPUTER SCIENCE

PAPER 1

(THEORY) Three hours (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions in Part I (compulsory) and seven questions from Part-II, choosing three questions from Section-A, two from Section-B and two from Section-C . All working, including rough work, should be done on the same sheet as the rest of the answer. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------PART I Answer all questions. While answering questions in this Part, indicate briefly your working and reasoning, wherever required. Question 1 (a) (b) State the two distributive laws of Boolean Algebra. Prove any one of them with [2] the help of Truth Table. Draw the truth table to verify the expression : p q is equivalent to ( q = q = q) (c) (d) Find the complement of the following: [(xy) · x] [ (xy) · y] Simplify the following Boolean Expression using laws of Boolean Algebra. At [2] each step, clearly state the law used for simplification. z.(z+x)x(y+ y) (e) Given F ( x, y, z ) = xz + xy + yz Write the function in canonical sum of products form. [2] [2] q p [2]

75 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 2 (a) (b) What do LIFO and FIFO stand for? [2]

For an array of real numbers x [ - 6... 8 , -12... 20 ] , find the address of [2] x [5] [4 ], if x [1] [1] is stored in location 100 in the column major order. Assume that each element requires 4 bytes. State the difference between an abstract class and an interface Convert the following infix expression to its postfix form: b * [ (a / d ) - ( c * ( e - f ) ) ] Define a binary tree. [2] [2] [2]

(c) (d) (e)

Question 3 (a) The following function is a part of some class. It returns the value 1 when the number is an Armstrong number, otherwise it returns 0. /* An Armstrong number is a number which is equal to the sum of the cube of its individual digits */ int arms ( int n ) { int digit = 0, sum = 0 ; int rem = n; while ( ? 1 ? ) { digit = ? 2 ?; sum = sum + ? 3 ? ; rem = ? 4 ? ; } if (? 5 ? ) return 1 ; else return 0 ; } (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) What is the expression/value at ? 1 ? What is the expression/value at ? 2 ? What is the expression/value at ? 3 ? What is the expression/value at ? 4 ? What is the expression/value at ? 5 ? [1] [1] [1] [1] [1]

76 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(b)

Give output of the following function where x and y are arguments greater than 0. Show the dry run/working. int strange (int x, int y) { //Assuming x>0 and y>0 if(x>=y) { x = x-y; return strange(x , y); } else return x; } (i) (ii) (iii) What will the function strange(20,5) return ? What will the function strange(15,6) return ? In one line, state what the function is doing. [2] [2] [1]

PART ­ II Answer seven questions in this part, choosing three questions from Section A, two from Section B and two from Section C. SECTION - A Answer any three questions.

Question 4 (a) Given the Boolean function: F ( P, Q, R, S ) = ( 0, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, 15 ) [5]

Use Karnaughs map to reduce the function F, using the SOP form. Draw a logic gate diagram for the reduced SOP form. You may use gates with more than two inputs. Assume that the variable and their complements are available as inputs. (b) Given the Boolean function : X ( P, Q, R, S ) = ( 3, 8, 10, 12, 13, 14, 15 ) Use Karnaughs map to reduce this function X using the given POS form. Draw a logic gate diagram for the reduced POS form. You may use gates with more than two inputs. Assume that the variables and their complements are available as inputs. [5]

77 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 5 The main safe in the nationalized bank can be opened by means of a unique password consisting of three parts. Different parts of the password are held by the Chairman, Regional Manager, Bank Manager and Head cashier of the bank, respectively. In order to open the safe, any one of the following conditions must be satisfied: The password of the Chairman, together with passwords of any two other officials, must be entered. OR The password of all the three bank officials, excluding the chairman, must be entered. The inputs are: A : Denotes the Chairmans password. B : Denotes the Regional Managers password. C : Denotes the Bank Managers password. D : Denotes the Head Cashers password. Output: X ­ Denotes that the safe can be opened. [1 indicates Yes and 0 indicates No in all cases] (a) (b) Draw the truth table for the inputs and outputs given above and write the SOP [5] expression for X( A, B, C, D ). Reduce X( A, B, C, D ) using Karnaughs map, if possible. Draw the logic gate diagram for the reduced SOP expression for X( A, B, C, D ) using AND & OR gates. You may use gates with two or more inputs. Assume that the variables and their complements are available as inputs. Question 6 (a) (b) Draw the truth table and logic circuit diagram for a Decimal to Binary Encoder. Given : F(x, y, z) = Verify : F(x, y, z) = (c) (1,3,7) (0,2,4,5,6) [5] [2] [5]

Simplify the following expression by using Boolean laws. Show the working and [3] also mention the laws used : X'Y'Z' + XYZ' + XY'Z' + X'YZ'

78 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 7 (a) (b) (c) Define Cardinal Form of an expression and Canonical Form of an expression. Give an example for each. Which gate is equivalent to : (NOR) OR (XOR) Define a Half Adder. Draw the Truth Table and Logic diagram of a Half Adder. SECTION ­ B Answer any two questions. Each program should be written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem. This can be achieved by using mnemonic names and comments in the program. (Flowcharts and Algorithms are not required.) The programs must be written in Java. Question 8 [3] [3] [4]

A perfect square is an integer which is the square of another integer. For example, 4, 9, [10] 16 .. are perfect squares. Design a Class Perfect with the following description: Class name Data members/instance variables n Member functions: default constructor parameterized constructor to assign a value to ,,n void perfect_sq() : to display the first 5 perfect squares larger than ,,n (if n = 15, the next 3 perfect squares are 16, 25, 36) void sum_of() : to display all combinations of consecutive integers whose sum is equal to n. ( the number n = 15 can be expressed as 1 2 3 4 5 4 5 6 7 8 Specify the class Perfect giving details of the constructors, void perfect_sq( ) and void sum_of(). Also define the main function to create an object and call methods accordingly to enable the task. Perfect( ) Perfect(int) : : : Perfect

:

stores an integer number

79 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 9 A class RecFact defines a recursive function to find the factorial of a number. The [10] details of the class are given below: Class name Data members/instance variables n r Member functions RecFact( ) void readnum( ) int factorial(int) : : : default constructor to enter values for ,,n and ,,r returns the factorial of the number using the Recursive Technique. to calculate and display the value of

n! r !*( n r )!

:

RecFact

: :

stores the number whose factorial is required. stores an integer

Void factseries( )

:

Specify the class RecFact giving the details of the constructor and member functions void readnum( ), int factorial(int) and void factseries( ). Also define the main function to create an object and call methods accordingly to enable the task.

Question 10 In "Piglatin" a word such as KING is replaced by INGKAY , while TROUBLE becomes OUBLETRAY and so on . The first vowel of the original word becomes the start of the translation, any preceding letters being shifted towards the end and followed by AY. Words that begin with a vowel or which do not contain any vowel are left unchanged. Design a class Piglatin using the description of the data members and member functions given below: Class name Data members /instance variables : Txt len : to store a word : to store the length 80 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013 : Piglatin [10]

Member functions : Piglatin( ) void readstring( ) void convert ( )

: constructor to initialize the data mrmbers : to accept the word input in UPPER CASE : converts the word into its piglatin form and displays the word (changed or unchanged) : counts and displays the number of present in the given word.

void consonant( ) consonants

Specify the class Piglatin giving the details of the constructor, void readstring( ), void convert( ) and void consonant( ). Also define the main function to create an object and call methods accordingly to enable the task. SECTION ­ C Answer any two questions. Each program should be written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem stepwise. This can be achieved by using comments in the program and mnemonic names or pseudo codes for algorithms. The programs must be written in Java and the algorithms must be written in general / standard form, wherever required / specified. (Flowcharts are not required.) Question 11 A class Author contains details of the author and another class Book List contains [10] details of the books written by him. The details of the two classes are given below: Class name Data members authorno name Member functions Author ( ) Author ( ... ) void show( ) : : : default constructor parameterised constructor to assign values to author number and name to display the authors details : : stores the authors number stores the authors name : Author

81 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Class name Data members/instance variables bookno bookname price edition Member functions Booklist (...)

:

Booklist

: : : :

Long type variable to the store book number stores the book name float variable to store the price integer type variable to store the edition number

:

parameterized constructor to assign values to data members of both the classes

void show( ) : to display all the details Specify the class Author giving details of the constructors and member function void show( ). Using the concept of Inheritance, specify the class Booklist giving details of the constructor and the member function void show( ). Also define the main function to create an object and call methods accordingly to enable the task. Question 12 In a computer game, a vertical column and a pile of rings are displayed. The objective of the game is to pile up rings on the column till it is full. It can hold 10 rings at the most. Once the column is full, the rings have to be removed from the top till the column is empty and then the game is over. Define the class RingGame with the following details: Class name Data members/instance variables ring [ ] max upper Member functions RingGame(int m) void jump-in(int ) : : constructor to initialize, max = m & upper to ­ 1. adds a ring to the top of the column, if possible. otherwise, displays a message "Column full. Start removing rings". 82 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013 : : : array to hold rings (integer) integer to hold maximum capacity of ring array integer to point to the upper most element : RingGame [10]

void jump-out( )

:

removes the ring from the top, if column is not empty. otherwise, outputs a message, "Congratulations. The game is Over".

Specify the class RingGame giving the details of the constructor and functions void jump-in(int) and void jump-out( ). Also define the main function to create an object and call methods accordingly to enable the task.

Question 13 (a) A Linked List is formed from the objects of the class, Class Node { int num; Node next; } Write the algorithm OR a method for inserting a node in the end of the list. The method declaration is given below : void insertnode(Node start) (b) State the complexity for the following algorithms : (i) (ii) (c) Linear Search Binary Search [3] [3] [4]

(iii) Selection Sort List the nodes in the tree given below using: (i) (ii) Preorder Traversal Postorder Traversal

(iii) Inorder traversal

F

H G J P O M

I K

L 83

N

ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

PHYSICAL EDUCATION PAPER - 1 (THEORY)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions from Section A and four questions on two of the sports from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------SECTION A (48 Marks) Answer all questions. Question 1 Explain how Physical Education helps in the all-round development of an individual. Question 2 Define interest. Differentiate between inborn and acquired interest, giving examples. Question 3 Define attitude. Explain the various methods of forming attitude. Question 4 Explain the procedure of conducting circuit training. State any two advantages of this [8] training method. Question 5 Differentiate between isotonic and isometric exercises. Question 6 Define First aid. Explain the procedure of giving the first aid to a person suffering from a [8] sprain. [8] [8] [8] [8]

84 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

SECTION B (52 Marks) Answer four questions on any two sports. FOOTBALL Question 7 (a) (b) What is the full form of FIFA? What is its importance for the game? Explain the following terms: (i) (ii) (c) (i) (ii) Question 8 (a) (b) (c) State any five occasions on which a yellow card can be shown to a player by the [5] referee. Name the national body which governs the game of football in India. What is the importance of penalty arc in the game? CRICKET Question 9 (a) (b) Draw a neat diagram of a cricket field and mark any four fielding positions behind the strikers wickets. What is the full form of : (i) (ii) (c) ICC MCC [5] [4] [4] [4] Dropped ball Penalty kick [4] What is the name of the National trophy in India instituted for Football (for men)? Name the oldest Football tournament in India. [5] [4]

Answer the following:

What is the name of the national trophy for cricket in India? Name the winner of [4] this national trophy in the year 2010.

Question 10 (a) Explain the following terms: (i) (ii) Leg bye Bouncer [5]

85 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(b)

Give the full forms of the following: (i) (ii) MCC BCCI

[4]

(c)

What is the importance of the 30-yard circle, in the game of cricket?

[4]

HOCKEY Question 11 (a) (b) State any five duties of the field umpire in the game. Give full forms of the following: (i) (ii) (c) IHF FIH [5] [4]

State any four fouls for which a yellow card is shown by the referee in the game of [4] Hockey.

Question 12 (a) (b) State any five equipments which a referee must carry while conducting a match. Explain the following terms in the game of Hockey: (i) (ii) (c) (i) (ii) Bully Scoop [4] Name the trophy given for the national hockey championship for men in India. What do you understand by the term manufactured foul? [5] [4]

Answer the following:

BASKETBALL Question 13 (a) (b) (c) What is the importance of the three point field goal area on the court? What is meant by the term FIBA? Who was the winner of the FIBA World Basketball Championship in the year 2010? Explain the following terms: (i) Eight seconds rule (ii) Back court violation [5] [4] [4]

86 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 14 (a) (b) (c) State any five duties of the time keeper. [5] Differentiate between a foul and a violation. [4] Differentiate between disqualifying foul and technical foul in the game of [4] Basketball.

VOLLEYBALL Question 15 (a) (b) Explain the procedure for starting a Volleyball match. What is the full form of the following terms in Volley ball: (i) FIVB (ii) VFI What is the importance of attack line in the game? [5] [4]

(c)

[4]

Question 16 (a) (b) List any five faults that a player is likely to commit during a game of Volleyball. Name the trophy given for the National Volleyball Championship in India for: (i) Men (ii) Women Explain the following terms in the game of Volleyball: (i) Held ball (ii) Blocking. TENNIS Question 17 (a) (b) (c) State any five permanent fixtures present on the Tennis court. Name the Grand slam tournaments along with their venues. [5] [4] [5] [4]

(c)

[4]

State the dimensions of a tennis racket with reference to its frame and the strung [4] surface.

Question 18 (a) (b) (c) What is the pattern of scoring in a Tennis match? What is the difference between the Davis Cup and the Federation Cup? In the game of Tennis, what is the difference between a volley and a drop shot? [5] [4] [4]

87 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

BADMINTON Question 19 (a) (b) Mention any five duties of the umpire in the game of Badminton. Explain the following terms in the game: (i) (ii) (c) Let Short service [4] [5] [4]

In the game of Badminton, when is the shuttle considered not in play?

Question 20 (a) (b) Draw a neat diagram of a singles badminton court with all dimensions. State the full forms of the following in the game of Badminton: (i) (ii) (c) BWF BAI [5] [4]

State the dimensions of a Badminton racket with reference to the length and width [4] of the following: (i) (ii) Frame of the racket Stringed area

SWIMMING Question 21 (a) (b) State any five duties of the chief finish judge in a Swimming competition. Give the full forms of the following terms: (i) FINA (ii) SFI (i) What is the length, width and depth of an Olympic size swimming pool? (ii) How many lanes does an Olympic size swimming pool have? [5] [4]

(c)

[4]

Question 22 (a) (b) (c) State any five duties of the starter, in swimming. State the sequence of strokes in the swimming individual medley event. What is meant by the term open water swimming? [5] [4] [4]

88 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

ATHLETICS Question 23 (a) (b) Draw a diagram of the short-put circle and sector with specifications. State the full forms of the following in Athletics: (i) IAAF (ii) AAFI Explain the advantages of using a starting block for running. [5] [4]

(c)

[4]

Question 24 (a) (b) State the importance of the take-off board in long jump event. Give the dimensions of the following: (i) Length of the cross bar used in the high jump. (ii) Width of the track lanes. (iii) Height of the hurdle in 100 m hurdle. (iv) Height of the hurdle, at the water jump in a Steeplechase race for men. State any four duties of the starter in athletics. [5] [4]

(c)

[4]

89 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

BIOTECHNOLOGY

PAPER 1

(THEORY)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer Question 1 (compulsory) from Part I and five questions from Part II. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------PART I Answer all questions. Question 1 (a) Mention any one significant difference between each of the following: (i) (ii) Western bottling and southern bottling. Pyranoses and furanoses [5]

(iii) RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase. (iv) (v) (b) Primary and secondary culture. Codon and anticodon. [5]

Answer the following questions: (i) (ii) What is optical isomerism? What are termination codons?

(iii) What is meant by central dogma? (iv) (v) (c) Who discovered enzyme restriction endonucleases? Why is Agrobacterium tumifaciens called as the natural genetic engineer of plants? [5]

Write the full form of the following: (i) (ii) MCS NBPGR

(iii) AFLP (iv) (v) SCP EST 90 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

(d)

Explain briefly: (i) (ii) Prosthetic group Synthetic seeds

[5]

(iii) Palindromic sequences (iv) (v) Restriction sites Single strand binding proteins PART II Answer any five questions. Question 2 (a) (b) (c) What are carbohydrates? Classify them giving examples. Explain the steps involved in the post translational modification of proteins. Enlist four characteristics of a genetic code. [4] [4] [2]

Question 3 (a) Explain the following biochemical techniques: (i) (ii) (b) (c) Electrophoresis Centrifugation. [4] [2] [4]

Explain the different methods of freeze preservation of germplasm. What is meant by the term insertional inactivation?

Question 4 (a) (b) (c) Explain how cell culture technology is useful in crop improvement. Explain a method used for DNA sequencing using ddNTPs. Why are cDNA libraries preferred over geneomic libraries? [4] [4] [2]

Question 5 (a) (b) (c) Explain semiconservative mode of DNA replication. [4]

Mention the ways by which the apparatus and instruments used in a tissue culture [4] laboratory can be sterilized. What are coenzymes? Name any two of them. [2]

91 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 6 (a) (b) (c) Mention the chief characteristics of embryonic stem cells. Explain any four chemical properties of lipids. Differentiate between: (i) (ii) Question 7 (a) (b) (c) What do you understand by gene regulation? Write the different roles that proteins accomplish in a cell. What are liposomes? [4] [4] [2] Blunt ends and sticky ends. RAM and ROM [4] [4] [2]

Question 8 (a) Write short notes on: (i) (ii) (b) (c) Virus mediated gene transfer. Microinjection. [4] [2] [4]

Discuss the principle and the procedure of the PCR technique. What are start and stop codons?

Question 9 (a) (b) (c) Explain the role of computer in new drug development research. Write a note on different types of sequence analysis programs. Name any four institutes in India, which deal with biotechnology. [4] [4] [2]

92 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

BIOTECHNOLOGY

PAPER 2

(PRACTICAL)

(Three hours) (Candidates are allowed additional 15 minutes for only reading the paper. They must NOT start writing during this time.) ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Answer all questions. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 1 (a) You are provided with a culture of bacteria isolated from curd. Proceed as follows: Pick up a bacterial colony with a tooth pick or an inoculation loop and spread it on to a glass slide. Add two drops of crystal violet solution (1%) and gently warm it on a hot plate at 40oC until it becomes dry. Wash the smear with water to remove excess stain. Next, stain the slide with about 2 ml of iodine solution for 1 minute. Wash the smear with acetone. Now, counterstain the smear with saffranin solution (0.5%) for 1 minute. Again wash the smear with water and observe the slide under microscope. Answer the following questions: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (b) Write your observation when the slide is placed under the microscope. Identify the technique used above and mention its use in the laboratory. Explain the principle on which this technique is based. Name the bacteria present in the curd. [1] [1] [1] [1]

Perform the experiment described below and answer the questions that follow: Take a ripe mashed banana (about 2 piece) into a beaker and add 30 ml of extraction fluid (E.F.) provided to you. Incubate the beaker at 60oC for 15 minutes. Stir gently with a glass rod. Filter 5 ml of the cooled content into a test tube and add 5 ml of cold 90% alcohol to it. Allow the test tube to stand for 10 minutes.

93 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Answer the following questions: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Question 2 A milk sample for the isolation of proteins has been provided to you. Take 25 ml of the sample in a 50 ml flask and proceed as follows: (i) Warm the sample in a water-bath set at 35oC. Note the pH of the milk sample using a pH meter or a pH paper. What do you observe in the test tube after 10 minutes? Give two uses of genomic DNA in molecular biology experiments. Name a manor contaminant found in the above sample. Name two equipments used for quantitative estimation of DNA. [1] [1] [1] [1]

(ii) Next, add 0.4 N HCl drop-wise until the protein starts coagulating. Note the pH at which maximum separation of protein takes place. Filter the solution through a thin muslin cloth to separate out the protein. Show the protein isolated by you to the Visiting Examiner. Answer the following questions: (a) (i) (ii) (b) (c) (d) Report the initial pH of the milk sample. Report the pH at which the protein gets coagulated. [1] [1] [1] [2] [1]

Name the protein and carbohydrate present in the above sample. Explain the basic principle involved in the above isolation. Mention two precautions to be taken while conducting the above experiment.

Question 3 Identify the instruments/photographs of the instruments (1 ­ 4) commonly used in a biotechnology laboratory. For each instrument write: (a) (b) (c) The names. One important structural feature. Specific use. [2] [2] [2]

94 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

Question 4 Show the following to the Visiting Examiner for assessment. (a) (b) Project. Biotechnology Practical File. [7] [3]

95 ISC Specimen Question Paper 2013

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